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Jul 27, 2022
Why would YHWH speak from heaven "This day I have begotten thee"?
The Dead Sea Scrolls has two scrolls covering Psalm 2 -- Scroll 3Q2 & 11Q7. It covers verses 6 through 8 fully intact which at this site is translated:
6 “Yet I have set my King on my holy hill of Zion.”
7 I will tell of the decree. Yahweh said to me, “You are my son.
Today I have become your father.” (Psalm 2:6-7 DSS.)
http://dssenglishbible.com/psalms%202.htm
The full context of Psalm 2 is presented in the video from Abegg's DSS.
We provide you Augustine's rebuttal to Bishop Faustus presented in Episode 1.
Augustine provides a flimsy Rebuttal in In de Cons. Evang. 2,31 where he says "it" -- this language -- "is SAID not to be found in more ancient Greek codices" -- which others miscategorize as if Augustine said "clearly" that it was not in more ancient codices. No Augustine says some unidentified source says that this language is absent in "more ancient Greek codices." This is worthless, as it is no proof. It is hearsay.
Hodge admits the theological dilemma for the Nicene Creed doctrine of the "eternal son" - "begotten not made." Hodge -- a famous conservative protestant theologian -- explains that if this language from Psalm 2:7 could be applied to Jesus, it is a "more plausible" objection to the 'eternal son' doctrine. He says:
"More plausible objections are founded on certain passages of the Scriptures. In Psalm 2:7, it is said, “Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.” From this it is argued that Christ or the Messiah was constituted or made the Son of God in time, and therefore was not the Son of God from eternity." (Vol. 1 section 6 at ccel.org.)
This is behind the removal of a passage of Scripture once Augustine got bested by Bishop Faustus in a letter debate over the significance that both (at that time) Matthew and Luke had verses Faustus was able to quote to Augustine said "this day I have begotten thee" to Jesus in the hearing of many at his baptism. Augustine's best effort in response we already heard -- some 'say -- who is not explained -- that some codices of Luke do not have this language. Augustine was silent as to Matthew, implying conceding 2 things: it is in Matthew, and Augustine's own scriptures were no example he could cite as proof to contradict Bishop Faustus. Faustus had said Matthew speaks contrary to Catholic doctrine, so one must choose between being a "Catholic" (due to Nicene Creed) or being a Matthean, but one cannot be both at the same time.
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