Jesus' Words Only

‘This Day I Have Begotten You’ - Why Jerome Left Out of Vulgate of 405 AD. Ep #4(b)

Jul 28, 2022

Video Description

In 375 AD, Jerome would have learned about the Ebionites, and their view of what happened at the baptism of Jesus:

‘After saying many things, this Gospel [of Matthew to the Hebrews] continues: “After the people were baptized, Jesus also came and was baptized by John. And as [1] Jesus came up from the water, Heaven was opened, and He saw the Holy Spirit descend in the form of a dove and enter into Him. And a voice from Heaven said, ‘You are my beloved Son; with You I am well pleased.’ And again, ‘Today I have begotten You.’ “Immediately a great light shone around the place; and John, seeing it, said to Him, ‘Who are you, Lord? And again a voice from Heaven said, ‘This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased.’ Then John, falling down before Him, said, ‘I beseech You, Lord, baptize me!’ But He forbade him saying, ‘Let it be so; for thus it is fitting that all things be fulfilled.’” (Epiphanius, Panarion 30.13.7) [Wikipedia]

But this versions' "This day I have begotten thee" that matched the Bible as of 382 AD --as Faustus quoted both Matthew and Luke in the Greek to the same in his letter debate with Augustin -- proved the Nicene Creed is "wholly unlike the scripture" due to the "this day I have begotten thee."

Part of why this was not added by 405 AD was because Jerome finished the Vulgate of the NT by 383 AD, and then begins 22 more years to translate the translation of the OT. He finished the preface to the Greek NT in 383, and wrote:

‘Jerome, Preface to the Four Gospels (383 A.D.)

“I am now speaking of the New Testament. This was undoubtedly composed in Greek, with the exception of the work of Matthew the Apostle, who was the first to commit to writing the Gospel of Christ, and who published his work in Judaea in Hebrew characters. We must confess that as we have it [New Testament] in our language it is marked by discrepancies, and now that the stream is distributed into different channels we must go back to the fountainhead [the Greek manuscripts for 3 Greek gospels, and Hebrew for Matthew?]…I therefore promise in this short Preface to the four Gospels only, which are to be taken in the following order, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, as they have been revised by a comparison of the Greek manuscripts. Only early ones have been used.”

This clearly says Jerome knows the Greek Matthew was a translation, but he will not see the Hebrew Matthew for another 12 years -- in 395 AD.

In 392-393 AD When Jerome writes Lives of illustrious men, Jerome admits he never saw Hebrew Matthew yet, and mentions startling facts about the Nazarenes’ custody of a Hebrew Matthew, and it does not use Septuagint in Matthew.

In 392-93 in Illustrious Men, Jerome says the Hebrew Matthew was "translated into Greek," but we do not know who. Jerome also notes that he has been told the Hebrew Matthew uses the Hebrew of the OT, and not the Septuagint versions, which allows one to line up Matthew's references to "Out of Egypt I called my son," and "For he shall be called a Nazarene" with the OT Hebrew Scriptures.

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